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(B Gaspar & K C. Gilmour)
Identification of lymphocyte subsets is an important
first line investigation for:
1. SCID.
2. XLP.
3. XLA.
4. WASP.
5. XHM.
Protein based diagnosis can be used as an effective
screening tool because:
6. it identifies the genetic defect.
7. it is rapid.
8. it always identifies the carrier.
9. it is more cost effective.
10. it can direct other investigations.
T-B+ SCID can be caused by defects in the:
11. common gamma chain.
12. the common alpha chain.
13. JAK1.
14. JAK2.
15. JAK3.
The following abnormalities in protein expression conclusively
indicate a disease causing abnormality
16. protein size is aberrant.
17. protein fails to be expressed.
18. protein is tyrosine phosphorylated after stimulation.
19. multiple non-specific bands are seen on immunoblot analysis.
20. over 78% of cells express the protein by flow cytometry
analysis.
(S Deacock)
In individuals with immediate /Type I hypersensitivity
reactions to latex:
21. co-existent food allergies are rare.
22. clinical symptoms are always present if sIgE to latex
is demonstrable.
23. low-protein latex gloves may always be used safely.
24. powdered gloves may cause more severe symptoms than
non-powdered gloves because rubber additives bound to the
cornstarch particles may be inhaled.
25. immunotherapy is widely used as treatment.
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions to latex are:
26. due to T cells sensitised to chemicals added to the
latex during manufacturing.
27. best diagnosed by measurement of sIgE.
28. a recognised risk factor for the development of Type
I hypersensitivity.
29. the commonest type of skin reaction caused by rubber
gloves.
30. a frequent cause of respiratory symptoms in latex-allergic
subjects.
In the diagnosis of latex allergy:
31. Hundreds of different polypeptides and proteins have
been shown to stimulate sIgE production.
32. Commercially available in vitro assays for sIgE to latex
proteins give very similar sensitivity and specificity rates.
33. Skin prick testing is the single most reliable diagnostic
method for Type I hypersensitivity.
34. Patch testing may aid in diagnosis of rubber glove
eczema.
35. Anaphylaxis has never been reported after skin prick
testing.
(M Helbert & C Morgan)
The following statements are true
36. HLA typing has a strong positive predictive value in
Behçets disease in Caucasian patients.
37. Neuro radiology is non specific in Behçets disease.
38. Gut biopsies are non specific in Behçets disease.
39. Children with oral ulcers and raised IgD are unlikely
to have Behçets disease.
40. Clinical diagnostic criteria are reliable in diagnosing
Behçets disease.
The following statements are true
41. TH1 cytokines drive granuloma formation in Behçets
disease.
42. Antibodies are implicated in Behçets pathogenesis.
43. TH1 cytokines increase expression of endothelial cell
antigens.
44. Antibodies to endothelial cell antigens characteristically
bind to small vessels in Behçets disease.
45. There is clinical evidence for the efficacy of anti
TNF monoclonal antibodies in Behçets disease.
The following statements are true
46. Cyclophosphamide is useful in CNS and eye disease in
Behçets disease.
47. Cyclosporin is useful in CNS and eye disease in Behçets
disease.
48. Topical steroids are useful in Behçets disease.
49. Immunosuppressive drugs are often continued after clinical
remission.
50. Immunosuppressive regimes should be continued in Behçets
disease until the ESR has been normal for several months.
(R Pumphrey)
The first treatment for a severe acute allergic reaction
in a shocked but conscious 11-year-old should be
51. intravenous injection of 5mL 1:10,000 epinephrine over
5 minutes.
52. intramuscular injection 0.5mL 1:1000 epinephrine.
53. subcutaneous injection of 0.25 mL 1:1000 epinephrine.
54. intramuscular injection of 0.25mL 1:1000 epinephrine.
55. intramuscular injection 300microgram by epinephrine
autoinjector.
Which of the following give information useful for
forecasting a future fatal allergic reaction to peanuts?
56. strongly positive skin prick test.
57. high level of specific IgE.
58. positive open challenge test.
59. positive double blind challenge test.
60. history of previous severe reactions.
61. none of the above.
Which of the following statements about food allergy
management strategies is true?
62. Anyone with peanut allergy can be trained to avoid peanuts
completely.
63. Randomised controlled trials have proved the effectiveness
of epinephrine in managing anaphylactic reactions.
64. Improving daily asthma management will save more lives
than giving epinephrine for self-treatment.
65. Epinephrine self-treatment has been prescribed so widely
that now most have it who might need it.
66. Epinephrine is the most important first treatment for
food anaphylaxis because shock is the commonest cause of death.
(AR Gennery & M Abinun)
Which statement is True or False:
67. A lymphocyte count of 1.5 x 109/L is the
lower limit of normal in an infant.
68. A lymphocytosis excludes SCID.
69. SCID immunophenotype is of research value only and has
no prognostic significance.
70. BMT for SCID is successful less than 60% of the time.
71. In utero BMT is the treatment of choice when there is
a positive foetal diagnosis.
72. JAK3 deficiency has been successfully treated by gene
therapy.
(M Peakman)
Which of the following statements is true or false
about Type 1 diabetes:
73. Autoantibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase are the
best predictive marker of diabetes
74. Radioligand binding assays with recombinant islet autoantigens
are the assays of choice for islet cell autoantibodies
75. Although islet-reactive T cells are thought to cause
diabetes, it is impossible to detect them in peripheral blood.
76. Islet cell autoantibodies are rare in patients with
long-standing (>20 years) disease.
77. The strongest genetic association with Type 1 diabetes
is HLA-DR4 (B1*0401)
78. Rubella infection is associated with autoantibodies
to insulin and phogrin.
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